Howard Stern, the FCC and the First Amendment
Supposedly it's because of scarcity; because there's only so many different channels that can be intelligibly broadcast upon, the government has the right to license and then regulate the airwaves. But this makes no sense; they would, according to that theory, have the right to issue licenses but not to mandate content. The courts have repeatedly declared that the government has no right to regulate content on the internet; why then can they do so on the airwaves?
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